The below is my opinion, it may be wrong.
What is a “god” of something? It is the spiritual entity which controls such thing.
(Psalms 96:5; I Chronicles 16:26) “For all the gods of the peoples are idols,
but Yahweh made the heavens.”
An idol is a specifically crafted thing in order to represent a force of spiritual world. An idol is a mean to control spiritual world: It concentrates spiritual forces on a certain topic. If an idol is broken, the spiritual force dissipates.
So gods of people, they are idols, that is they live only as long as the idol is set up and not broken.
God of Israel is an exception. He is not controlled by an idol. But He is Yahweh himself, one who created the heavens long before the first idol appeared. He cannot die. For example, losing his ark does not cause Him to dissipate, because He is deathless.
(Lev. 10:1-2) “1 Nadab and Abihu, the sons of Aaron, each took his censer, and put fire in it, and laid incense on it, and offered strange fire before Yahweh, which he had not commanded them. 2 Fire came out from before Yahweh, and devoured them, and they died before Yahweh.”
What is the “strange fire”? I think one of the interpretations of this are “motivational speech” in the church. God does not want our ministry to the Lord be motivated by anything that the fire from Holy Spirit. Motivating it by something other leads to spiritual death.
Theological “science” system is broken. It is impossible to publish a Bible-based revelation.
I tried a little a few years ago to publish my ideas on what Christ is (see my free e-book chapter 5).
They said it cannot be published among other reasons because it should link to works of other scholars.
Wait! A revelation is meant to be based on Bible, not on works of other scholars.
Exact fit of the prophecy of Jesus: (Mark 7:7-8) “But in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men. For you set aside the commandment of God, and hold tightly to the tradition of men…”
Do not allocate money to support theology PhD programs. Jesus calls this thing “vain”.
Some translations (e.g. New American Standard Bible) of Luk. 2:40 say that Jesus was “increased” in wisdom.
But he is God and already knows everything. How can his wisdom “increase”?
In my opinion (see my book for more details), Christ limited himself to human senses to perceive the environment. He already knew all mathematics, but he needed to study physics of this region on the universe (as other regions of so called multiverse behave as having different laws of physics).
(Philippians 2:8) “7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross.”
It means that Jesus researched the world around him and found that now he is in a human body. In the childhood he was busy understanding the laws of physics (which He created) of this part of the world.
First I am not a professional theologian. The following may contain factual errors. However, I am a mathematician and can formulate my thoughts exactly.
As far as I know, there is no free will for salvation of a man or woman accordingly the teaching of the Protestant reformer John Calvin.
I think we should accommodate that “free will” can be interpreted in different ways:
- We have free will in that sense that God does not change our character by just moving atoms in our brain to erase our old mind and create a new one with destruction of our former mind. Instead God communicates with us with words, visions, etc., all of which are accomplished as influencing our brains with information contained in cosmic electromagnetic waves. Cosmic electromagnetic waves are called “Christ” in Bible (see my book). So God decided to save us through Christ instead of erasing our mind with brute force and starting it anew with old mind erases. In this sense we have free will.
- Another meaning of “free will” is that we could be able to resist God’s influence to save us. I doubt whether we have free will in this sense. (Rom. 9:18-19) “18 So then, he has mercy on whom he desires, and he hardens whom he desires. 19 You will say then to me, “Why does he still find fault? For who withstands his will?” From this verse it seems that a human does not have free will in the sense to withstand the decision of God to save him.
It seems that all mainstream and evangelical Protestants believe that God has predestined who to save.
Another “feature” of Calvinism is that God has predestined also who not to save.
Do I agree with this? It seems that this question is even more difficult than it seems:
I suppose that people are born accordingly natural laws of biology and sociology. What is predestination for salvation of a particular person then? In my opinion it is “fitting” of a particular “natural” (stochastic that is randomly borb) person into the scheme of one of a big but finite number of a “new creations”.
Then the main point of the discussion of Luther and Calvin becomes: Does God predestine only fitting particular persons into the scheme of saved “new creations” or does He also predestine into another scheme of non-saved people? I don’t know the answer but suppose that it is likely that God in this sense predestined only “new creations” and has not predestined not saved people.
Another question: How can predestination fit together with the fact that people are saved when they willingly accept Christ into their hearts?
I think the main part of the answer to this question is: (Is. 65:24) “It shall happen that, before they call, I will answer…” This means that our prayers can be heard by God even before the world begin, when He does our predestination.
The following may look “not enough conservative”, but my purpose is to strictly follow the Bible:
(Job 3:16) “or as a hidden untimely birth I had not been, as infants who never saw light.”
Bible seems to say (if I understand it correctly) that unborn embryos do not have soul.
I do not say that abortion is good. I just try to make a biblical point on it.
Is killing an unborn embryos well a killing? I do not know, but it seems not to be sending a soul into separation of body, because there is no soul in this case.
The above is just my personal opinion and it may be wrong.
What is love? What the word “love” means in New Testament? These look like very difficult questions.
But the Greek word “agape” for “love” also means “charity”. So love is simply ability to do charity.
(1 Cor. 13)
1 If I speak with the languages of men and of angels, but don’t have love, I have become sounding brass, or a clanging cymbal. 2 If I have the gift of prophecy, and know all mysteries and all knowledge; and if I have all faith, so as to remove mountains, but don’t have love, I am nothing. 3 If I dole out all my goods to feed the poor, and if I give my body to be burned, but don’t have love, it profits me nothing.
In the past it was about me. I had faith, I was baptized by Spirit and fire and prayed in tongues, I knew more than most other people. I even wanted to help the poor. But I didn’t have charity.
I was seeking for ways to get money for my ministry. It was a business, business attempting to serve God, but not a charity.
I was heavily pressed by the contradiction that I need money for my ministry but should not be greedy.
I was divided between God’s commandments and between my desire to get money for my ministry by any means (such as cursing other people and making them to die because of my curse).
At last (quite hilariously) I tried to put my hope on conforming to the Russian law (I’m from Russia) about charitable organizations. I tried to make me conform to this law, because I saw no other way to overcome my “holy” greed.
I found myself a modern kind of a Pharisee.
But now thanks to End of Gospel teaching I am free from being a Pharisee and have charity in my heart. Read this book.